Fatou's Lemma - A Counterexample

A Counterexample

A suitable assumption concerning the negative parts of the sequence f1, f2, . . . of functions is necessary for Fatou's lemma, as the following example shows. Let S denote the half line [0,∞) with the Borel σ-algebra and the Lebesgue measure. For every natural number n define


f_n(x)=\begin{cases}-\frac1n&\text{for }x\in ,\\
0&\text{otherwise.}
\end{cases}

This sequence converges uniformly on S to the zero function (with zero integral) and for every x ≥ 0 we even have fn(x) = 0 for all n > x (so for every point x the limit 0 is reached in a finite number of steps). However, every function fn has integral −1, hence the inequality in Fatou's lemma fails.

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